Solution
= Solution
There are $n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1)=n!/(n-k)!$ ordered selections of $k$ distinct elements. Every size-$k$ <subset> appears in exactly $k!$ orders, giving the <binomial coefficient>
$$
\boxed{\binom nk=\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!},\qquad0\leq k\leq n.}
$$
For $k=0$, both the empty selection and $0!$ contribute one.