No. For sufficiently smooth curves,
is unchanged by proper Euclidean motions and transforms correctly under translations of the arc-length parameter, so it is a pointwise Euclidean invariant of a curve. It is not determined by the two numbers and .
For a concrete comparison near , use the plane curve reconstructed from curvature construction with
The resulting unit-speed planar curves both have and , but their curvature derivatives at zero are respectively and . Thus no single function can satisfy for all curves.
Indeed, the covariance conditions alone even permit nonlocal examples such as . This is the distinction recorded by pointwise Euclidean invariants need not depend only on current curvature and torsion.