 Hardy inequality on an interval

For $1<p<\infty$, if $u\in W^{1,p}(0,1)$ has zero trace at zero, thenIndeed, the one-dimensional Sobolev representative satisfies $u(x)={\int }_0^x{u}^{\prime }(t)dt$, so the claim is the Hardy averaging inequality applied to $u^{\prime }$.