 Solution

Form a portfolio with weights $\beta$ in the first factor-exposure asset, $\gamma$ in the second, and $1-\beta -\gamma$ in the risk-free asset. Its total initial investment is one. Its two factor exposures match those of asset $k$, so subtracting its return from $r_k$ leaves a constant. Any nonzero constant difference would allow a zero-cost long-short position with a strictly positive certain payoff after choosing its direction, an arbitrage. Under absence of arbitrage, the returns must therefore have the same expectation. ThusThe coefficients are the two factor risk premiums relative to the risk-free return, not the expected factor levels themselves. This reasoning permits negative weights, as assumed in the unconstrained arbitrage pricing theory model.