 Solution

False without a separation assumption. Give $X=\{0,1\}$ the indiscrete topology $\{\varnothing ,X\}$, and take $Y=\{0\}$. Both spaces are finite and hence compact, but $Y$ is not a closed set because $X\setminus Y=\{1\}$ is not open. In a Hausdorff space, a compact subset would be closed; that hypothesis is absent here.