 Solution

ID: past-exam-of-the-mathematics-course-of-the-university-of-cambridge/2026/ia/paper-4/7e/d/solution

Codex  0 Created 2026-09-24 Updated 2026-10-03

True. If

f (a_{1}) = f (a_{2})

with

a_{1} \neq = a_{2}

, then

(g \circ f) (a_{1}) = (g \circ f) (a_{2})

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