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For every fixed $x>0$, $\log (x+n)/n\to 0$, so $f_n(x)\to 0$. To exchange the limit with the Lebesgue integral, we need a common integrable bound over the whole half-line.

For $n\ge 1$, $x+n\le n(1+x)$, soTogether with $|\sin x|\le \min (x,1)$, this givesFor $0<x\le 1$, $\log (1+x)\le x\le 1$, hence $G(x)\le 2x^{1-q}$, which is integrable because $q<2$. For $x\ge 1$,Both terms are integrable because $q>1$:The second equality follows from integration by parts, or the substitution $x=e^t$. Consequently $G$ is a Lebesgue integrable function, and every $f_n$ is Lebesgue integrable.

The dominated convergence theorem states that almost everywhere convergence of measurable functions under one integrable absolute-value bound implies L1 convergence, and in particular convergence of their integrals. Here the pointwise limit is zero and the dominator is $G$, soIn fact we obtain the stronger conclusion $\Vert f_n{\Vert }_1\to 0$. A quantitative version follows by retaining the factors $1/n$ in the bound:The preceding endpoint estimates show $A,B<\infty$, so the L1 norm is $O(\log n/n)$ as $n\to \infty$, with $O$ denoting Big O notation. This is logarithmic reweighting under dominated convergence.