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The arithmetic-geometric mean inequality gives $a_k+1/a_k\ge 2$, so $u_n\ge 2n\to +\infty$. Hence $(u_n)$ has no finite limit.

For the example, take $\boxed{a_k=1+2^{-k}}$. Every term is positive and different from $1$, andThe bounding geometric series converges, so the comparison test for series proves that the partial sums $v_n$ converge.

In general, if $v_n$ converges, the necessary condition for a convergent series gives $d_k=a_k-1/a_k=v_k-v_{k-1}\to 0$. Since $a_k>0$,Apply the Cesaro theorem for convergent sequences to these summands:Equivalently, $a_k=(d_k+\sqrt{d_k^2+4})/2\to 1$. The series of the differences may converge while the series of the positive sums still diverges linearly.

Write $S_n={\sum }_{j=1}^n{Y}_j$ for the partial sum. Fix an integer $M\ge 1$. The tail-sum formula for expectation, applied to the nonnegative random variable $|Y_1|$, givesbecause $\mathbb{E}|Y_1|=\infty$. The events $\{|Y_n|>Mn\}$ are independent, so the second Borel--Cantelli lemma shows that $|Y_n|/n>M$ infinitely often with probability one. Taking the countable intersection over $M\in \mathbb{N}$ yieldsalmost surely.

Now $Y_n=S_n-S_{n-1}$, and the triangle inequality givesIf the limit superior of $|S_n|/n$ were finite, the right-hand side would have finite limit superior, contradicting the preceding conclusion. Thereforealmost surely.