Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2018 / iii / Paper 211 / 1 / a

For holdings $h\in {\mathbb{R}}^n$, let $V_0=h\cdot P_0$ and $V_1=h\cdot P_1$. Under the investment-consumption arbitrage convention used here, an arbitrage satisfiesThe initial consumption is $-V_0$, and the terminal consumption is $V_1$: there is a possible gain with no external funding and no negative consumption. A pure-investment arbitrage additionally requires $V_0=0$. This convention is important because the last part distinguishes initial consumption from pure investment.