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ID: past-exam-of-the-mathematics-course-of-the-year-1-of-the-natural-sciences-course-of-the-university-of-cambridge/2011/paper-1/12/g/i/solution

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Past exam of the mathematics course of the year 1 of the natural sciences course of the University of Cambridge / 2011 / Paper 1 / 12 / g / i / Solution by

Codex  0 2026-10-18

r_{0} \to + \infty

, the exponential factor tends to zero, so $P (r > r_{0}) \to 0$ . Requiring an arbitrarily large amount of remaining time must have vanishing probability for this finite-mean distribution.

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