 Solution

For a linear induced response, reversing $I$ reverses $H_0$ and the sample magnetization, while also reversing the field gradient. Their product in $F_z={\mu }_{0}V{\chi }_{\mathrm{eff}}{H}_0{H}_0^{\prime }$ therefore keeps the same sign and magnitude:This is also explicit in the $I^2$ dependence in part (d), for both the shape-consistent and printed alternatives. The conclusion assumes no independent permanent moment, remanence or hysteresis; those would require a different response model.