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by Ciro Santilli (@cirosantilli, 37)

Lp norm sequence convergence does not imply pointwise convergence

 ... Calculus Integral Lebesgue integral Lebesgue integral of Lp is complete but Riemann isn't Riesz-Fischer theorem Fourier basis is complete for L2
 0 By others on same topic  0 Discussions  Updated 2025-06-17  +Created 1970-01-01  See my version
math.stackexchange.com/questions/138043/does-convergence-in-lp-imply-convergence-almost-everywhere
There are explicit examples of this. We can have ever thinner disturbances to convergence that keep getting less and less area, but never cease to move around.
If it does converge pointwise to something, then it must match of course.

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  1. Fourier basis is complete for L2
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  3. Lebesgue integral of Lp is complete but Riemann isn't
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