Fourier basis is complete for $L^2$

Riesz-Fischer theorem is a norm version of it, and Carleson's theorem is stronger pointwise almost everywhere version.

Note that the Riesz-Fischer theorem is weaker because the pointwise limit could not exist just according to it: $L^p$ norm sequence convergence does not imply pointwise convergence.

There are explicit examples of this. We can have ever thinner disturbances to convergence that keep getting less and less area, but never cease to move around.

If it does converge pointwise to something, then it must match of course.

The Fourier series of an $L^2$ function (i.e. the function generated from the infinite sum of weighted sines) converges to the function pointwise almost everywhere.

The theorem also seems to hold (maybe trivially given the transform result) for the Fourier series (TODO if trivially, why trivially).

Only proved in 1966, and known to be a hard result without any known simple proof.

This theorem of course implies that Fourier basis is complete for $L^2$, as it explicitly constructs a decomposition into the Fourier basis for every single function.

TODO vs Riesz-Fischer theorem. Is this just a stronger pointwise result, while Riesz-Fischer is about norms only?

One of the many fourier inversion theorems.