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A smooth function on a real open interval is real analytic exactly when, near each point, there are constants $C,A>0$ such that $|f^{(n)}(x)|\le C{A}^{n}n!$ for every $n$ and every $x$ in that neighborhood. The bound must hold on a neighborhood, not only at its center. The Taylor theorem with Lagrange remainder proves sufficiency; differentiating a convergent power series on a smaller interval proves necessity. A flat function shows why pointwise bounds alone are insufficient.

The Taylor series definition says that $f\in C^{\infty }(\mathbb{R})$ and, for every $a$, there is $r>0$ such thatThe equivalent factorial derivative criterion for real analyticity says that, for every $a$, there are a neighborhood $I$ of $a$ and constants $C,A>0$ such thatThe uniformity over $I$ matters: bounds only at $a$ do not exclude a flat function.

Assume the factorial derivative criterion for real analyticity. The Taylor theorem with Lagrange remainder giveswhen the segment from $a$ to $a+h$ is contained in $I$. For sufficiently small $|h|<A^{-1}$ the Taylor remainder tends to zero, proving the Taylor series definition.

Conversely, write the convergent power series at $a$ as $\sum b_k{h}^k$. Choose $\rho$ strictly inside its radius of convergence; then $|b_k|\le M{\rho }^{-k}$ for some $M$. Termwise differentiation on $|h|\le \rho /2$ givesHere the sum is $(1-1/2{)}^{-n-1}$, obtained by differentiating the geometric series. This is the required locally uniform bound. The two definitions of a real analytic function are equivalent.

Consider the flat functionAway from zero every derivative has the form $P_n(1/x)e^{-1/x^2}$ for a polynomial $P_n$: differentiating preserves this form. For every $m\ge 0$,because an exponential function decays faster than any power. Inductively, extend each displayed derivative by zero at zero. It is continuous there, and its difference quotient at zero also tends to zero by the same estimate with one extra power of $|x{|}^{-1}$. Thus each extension is the derivative of the preceding extension. This proves $f\in C^{\infty }(\mathbb{R})$ and $f^{(n)}(0)=0$ for all $n$.

Its Taylor series at zero is identically zero, whereas $f(x)>0$ for every $x\ne 0$. It is smooth everywhere but not real analytic at zero.