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Fix $z_0\in \mathcal{U}$. We prove the Riemann mapping theorem in this case by maximizing a normalized derivative. Choose $a\notin \mathcal{U}$. Since $\mathcal{U}$ is a simply connected domain and $z-a$ never vanishes, it has a holomorphic square root $g$. This $g$ is injective, and $g(\mathcal{U})$ is disjoint from $-g(\mathcal{U})$: equality up to sign would first force the original points to coincide. Choose $b\in g(\mathcal{U})$ and $r>0$ with $B(b,r)\subset g(\mathcal{U})$. The ball $B(-b,r)$ is omitted, so $1/(g+b)$ is a bounded univalent function. Scaling and composing with an automorphism of the unit disk produces an injective holomorphic function $\varphi :\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{D}$ with $\varphi (z_0)=0$ and ${\varphi }^{\prime }(z_0)>0$.

Let $\mathcal{F}$ be the family of all such normalized univalent functions. A Cauchy estimate in a small disk about $z_0$ bounds their derivatives, so $M={\sup }_{\varphi \in \mathcal{F}}{\varphi }^{\prime }(z_0)$ is finite and positive. Choose a maximizing sequence in this normal family. Montel theorem gives a subsequence converging uniformly on compact subsets to $\varphi$. Its derivative at $z_0$ is $M>0$. The maximum modulus principle puts its image in $\mathbb{D}$, and Hurwitz's theorem implies that a nonconstant limit of injective holomorphic functions is injective. Thus the maximum is attained.

If $a_1\in \mathbb{D}$ is omitted, then $a_1\ne 0$. Put $T_a(w)=(w-a)/(1-\overline{a}w)$. A holomorphic square root $v$ of $T_{a_1}\circ \varphi$ exists, is injective, and takes values in $\mathbb{D}$. Compose $v$ with $T_{v(z_0)}$ and a rotation to normalize it. Writing $s=|a_1|\in (0,1)$, the new derivative has magnitudea contradiction. Therefore $\varphi$ maps onto $\mathbb{D}$. The Cayley transform between the half-plane and disk now givesIts inverse is holomorphic by the holomorphic inverse function theorem, so this is a biholomorphism. The proper-subset hypothesis was used to choose $a\notin \mathcal{U}$; the whole complex plane cannot be mapped this way, by Liouville theorem.

On $\mathbb{C}\setminus [-1,1]$, the chosen branch of a multivalued function is characterized by $f(z{)}^2=z^2-1$ and $f(x)>0$ for $x>1$; equivalently $f(z)/z\to 1$ as $z\to \infty$. Define $h(z)=-f(-z)$. Then $h(z{)}^2=z^2-1$ and $h(z)/z\to 1$ at infinity, so uniqueness of the normalized holomorphic square root gives $h=f$. Therefore $f(-z)=-f(z)$.