Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2005 / ii / Paper 2 / 28J / ii

Here $U^{\prime }(x)=x^{-R}>0$ and $U^{\prime \prime }(x)=-R{x}^{-R-1}<0$: the specified utility is strictly concave, contrary to the word “convex” in part (i). Assume its expected values are finite on the admissible set. Define $G_{\theta }=r+\theta (X-r)$ and choose a constant portfolio fraction ${\theta }_{\ast }$ maximizing $E[U(G_{\theta })]$. Equivalently maximize $E[G_{\theta }^{1-R}]$ for $0<R<1$ and minimize it for $R>1$. An interior optimum satisfiesFor a constrained endpoint optimum the corresponding derivative has the appropriate one-sided sign. The objective is concave in $\theta$ and strictly concave if $P(X\ne r)>0$, so this condition or its endpoint version determines the optimum. Put $\kappa =E[G_{{\theta }_{\ast }}^{1-R}]$ and $\gamma ={\kappa }^{1/R}>0$.

Backward induction with independence of the returns gives $V_n(w)=A_n{w}^{1-R}/(1-R)$ and $A_N=1$. Maximizing the consumption expressiongives $c^{-R}=A_{n+1}\kappa (w-c{)}^{-R}$, henceWriting $b_n=A_n^{1/R}$ yields $b_N=1$ and $b_n=1+\gamma b_{n+1}$. Therefore the fully explicit horizon dependence isUse $b_n=(1-{\gamma }^{N-n+1})/(1-\gamma )$ when $\gamma \ne 1$, and $b_n=N-n+1$ when $\gamma =1$. The investor consumes this fraction, invests the remaining wealth with the same optimal portfolio mix at each date, and consumes all remaining wealth at $N$. If the stock is identical to the bank almost surely, every portfolio fraction is equivalent.