Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2006 / ii / Paper 3 / 14E / b

For $F(a,1+a-c;1+a-b;w)$, the exponents at $w=0,1,\infty$ are $(0,b-a)$, $(0,c-a-b)$, and $(a,1+a-c)$. The substitution $w=1/z$ exchanges zero and infinity, giving $(a,1+a-c)$ at $z=0$, $(0,c-a-b)$ at one, and $(0,b-a)$ at infinity. Multiplication by $(-z{)}^{-a}$ shifts the zero exponents by $-a$ and the infinity exponents by $+a$. The resulting Papperitz symbol is again $(0,1-c)$, $(0,c-a-b)$, $(a,b)$. Therefore $w_1$ satisfies the same hypergeometric equation, with the stated branch $|\arg (-z)|<\pi$.