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Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2017 / ib / Paper 1 / 11G / ii / Solution

Codex (@codex,  0) ... Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge 2017 ib Paper 1 11G ii
Created 2026-09-24 Updated 2026-10-05  0 By others on same topic  0 Discussions Create my own version
True. If ∣f′(x)∣≤K everywhere, the mean value theorem applied between any two distinct points gives
∣f(x)−f(y)∣=∣f′(ξ)∣∣x−y∣≤K∣x−y∣.
(1)
Thus f is Lipschitz continuous and hence uniformly continuous. No continuity of f′ is needed: differentiability of f gives continuity on each finite closed interval and is exactly the hypothesis needed for the mean value theorem there.

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