No. A standard counterexample comes from the log-normal distribution. Letand, for a fixed , letThis is a nonnegative density distinct from . For every nonnegative integer , substituting makes the difference of the th moments proportional toIt is the imaginary part ofwhich vanishes because its phase is . The case also proves that is normalized. Thus the two distributions have every finite moment equal but are different. Unbounded random variables need not be determined by their moments.
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