Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2025 / iii / Paper 327 / 3 / b / ii / Solution

The claim is false because vanishing of the amplitude at one spatial point need not control its derivatives nearby. Take $X=\mathbb{R}$, $k=1$,Then $0\in Z(a)$, but distributionallyup to the Fourier-transform sign convention. Thus $0$ lies in the singular support of $I_{\Phi }(a)$ despite belonging to $Z(a)$.