 Solution

False. The real line with its usual metric is complete and is homeomorphic to $(0,1)$ with its usual metric, throughIts inverse is $h^{-1}(u)=\tan (\pi (u-1/2))$, so both maps are continuous. However, $(1/n{)}_{n\ge 2}$ is a Cauchy sequence in $(0,1)$ and has no limit there: its only possible real limit is zero. Hence $(0,1)$ is not a complete metric space. Completeness is a property of the metric, not just of its topology.