 Solution

Within an already specified inertial frame, with constant mass, substituting zero resultant force into Newton's second law does give zero acceleration. In that limited mathematical sense, force-free uniform motion is a special case. The reason for retaining Newton's first law is that its physical role is broader than this substitution.

The second law does not, just by its algebra, identify the coordinate systems in which acceleration measures the response to physical interactions. A free body described in coordinates $x^{\prime }=x-\frac{1}{2}A{t}^2$ has ${\ddot{x}}^{\prime }=-A$, despite experiencing no impressed interaction. If the second law is restricted to inertial frames, the first law supplies a criterion for that restriction and asserts that a common inertial structure exists. If instead one introduces a fictitious force $-mA$ to preserve the equation in the accelerated coordinates, that coordinate-dependent bookkeeping should not be confused with a newly discovered physical interaction.

Nor can the first law simply be used as a circular definition in which “free” means “unaccelerated” and “inertial” means “whatever makes the chosen body free”. The framework requires empirical identification of interactions and a mutually consistent class of free-body trajectories. Removing an influence or improving isolation should make the same inertial description work for many bodies, not merely one fitted trajectory.

Thus the two laws have distinguishable jobs: the first articulates the force-free inertial background; the second quantifies departures caused by impressed forces. A modern axiomatization may build that background into its spacetime structure and then omit a separately numbered first law. That is a legitimate reorganization, but it incorporates the first law's content rather than obtaining all of it from the equation $\mathbf{F}=m\mathbf{a}$. Newton states the laws separately in the opening axioms.^[ref]