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by Ciro Santilli (@cirosantilli, 37)

Why is the spin of the electron half?

 ... Particle physics Quantum mechanics Relativistic quantum mechanics Dirac equation Spin (physics) Spin number of a field
 0 By others on same topic  0 Discussions  Updated 2025-05-26  +Created 1970-01-01  See my version
physics.stackexchange.com/questions/266359/when-we-say-electron-spin-is-1-2-what-exactly-does-it-mean-1-2-of-what
More interestingly, how is that implied by the Stern-Gerlach experiment?
physics.stackexchange.com/questions/266359/when-we-say-electron-spin-is-1-2-what-exactly-does-it-mean-1-2-of-what/266371#266371 suggests that half could either mean:
  • at limit of large l for the Schrödinger equation solution for the hydrogen atom the difference between each angular momentum is twice that of the eletron's spin. Not very satisfactory.
  • it comes directly out of the Dirac equation. This is satisfactory. :-)

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