Black-Scholes equation

The price $V(t,s)$ of a sufficiently regular European claim satisfies

In the Black-Scholes equation with continuous stock dividends, separation of variables gives $g^{\prime }=(r-\lambda )g$ and ${\sigma }^2{S}^2{f}^{\prime \prime }/2+(r-q)S{f}^{\prime }-\lambda f=0$. Substituting $f=S^{\alpha }$ gives the displayed eigenvalue. A stationary solution uses the two roots of ${\sigma }^2\alpha (\alpha -1)/2+(r-q)\alpha -r=0$. For positive volatility and $r>0$, their product is negative, so they are distinct real roots.

When the underlying stock pays dividends at rate $\theta S_t$, its gain is $d{S}_t+\theta S_{t}dt$. Under the risk-neutral measure its ex-dividend drift is $(\rho -\theta )S_t$. A sufficiently smooth terminal-claim value obeys $p_t+(\rho -\theta )x{p}_x+{\sigma }^2{x}^2{p}_{xx}/2-\rho p=0$. These are dividends on the stock, not a source term paid by the claim itself.

With constant continuous stock-dividend yield $d$, the risk-neutral measure gives stock drift $r-d$ but cash claims are discounted at $r$. The same terminal payoff in a no-dividend Black-Scholes model with interest rate $r-d$ has the identical stock-transition law but a different discount factor. Their prices therefore obey the displayed identity, under the usual payoff integrability conditions.

If the claim holder receives a cash-flow rate $k(S_t,t)$ before maturity, the self-financing hedge matches the claim's cum-dividend gain $dp+kdt$. Its stock holding is the option delta $p_x$ and its bank-account value is $p-x{p}_x$. Comparing Itô formula with portfolio gains gives the displayed equation, with terminal value equal to the terminal payoff. The positive source term $k$ represents dividends paid by the claim; dividends on the underlying stock would instead alter the stock's pricing drift. Risk-neutral pricing includes both the discounted terminal payoff and the integral of discounted interim payments.

A smooth value function satisfying the Black-Scholes equation admits a self-financing portfolio with the displayed delta hedge. An arbitrary decomposition $p=xg+Bh$ need not be self-financing. For example $p=0$, $g=1$, $h=-x/B$ solves the value equation but has portfolio gains $dS-\rho Sdt$, which are not zero when volatility is positive. For specified holdings, self-financing is equivalent to the value equation together with $g=p_x$.