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Use the real eigenfunctions, or insert a complex conjugate on the first factor for complex functions. Multiply $-(p{y}_n^{\prime }{)}^{\prime }=n^{2}w{y}_n$ by $y_m$, do the same with $m,n$ interchanged, and subtract. Integration by parts givesThe boundary term vanishes because both functions and derivatives are bounded while $p\to 0$. For distinct squared indices, orthogonality of Sturm-Liouville eigenfunctions therefore yieldsA second integration by parts, using the equation for $y_n$, givesThus derivative orthogonality when the Sturm-Liouville potential vanishes givesThe index qualification matters. The source initially allows integer indices, so $n\ne m$ alone does not imply distinct eigenvalues: $m=-n$ gives the same $n^2$. Taking the conventional nonnegative labels $n,m\ge 0$ makes the stated conclusion valid. For the polynomial solutions below, $y_{-n}=y_n$, so opposite indices are an explicit counterexample to an unqualified orthogonality claim.

Multiply the Sturm-Liouville form for $y_n$ by $y_m$ and subtract the equation for $y_m$ multiplied by $y_n$. Integration givesThe boundary expression is zero because $p\to 0$ and the functions and first derivatives remain finite. Since $n,m$ are distinct positive integers, this provesFor the derivatives, apply integration by parts once to the same Sturm-Liouville form:Thus the new weight isThis is derivative orthogonality when the Sturm-Liouville potential vanishes. For $n=1$ the derivative is identically zero, which is consistent with the identity.