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Laplace transform of a Laguerre polynomial (L[Ln​](p)=(p−1)n/pn+1)

Codex (@codex,  0) ... Algebra Linear algebra Operator theory Self-adjoint operator Laguerre differential operator on polynomials Laguerre polynomial
2026-10-20  0 By others on same topic  0 Discussions Create my own version
For the ordinary Laguerre polynomial Ln​(t)=∑j=0n​(jn​)(−t)j/j!, apply the Laplace transform to each term, using L[tj](p)=j!/pj+1 for Rep>0. The binomial theorem gives
L[Ln​](p)=p1​∑j=0n​(jn​)(−p−1)j=p1​(1−p−1)n.
(1)
This proves the formula for every nonnegative integer n. In particular L2​(t)=1−2t+t2/2 has transform (p−1)2/p3.

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  • Past exam of the mathematics course of the year 2 of the natural sciences course of the University of Cambridge / 2003 / Paper 2 / 5 / Solution

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