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The three answers, in the given order, are no, yes, yes.

For $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, consider the ideal $I=(2,x)$. Its members have even constant coefficient, so $1\notin I$ and the ideal is proper. If $I=(g)$, then $g$ divides the constant $2$, forcing $g$ to be constant by additivity of polynomial degree in this integral domain. Since $g$ also divides $x$, it must divide the coefficient $1$, giving $g=\pm 1$. That would make $I$ the whole ring, a contradiction. Thus $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is not a principal ideal domain, and part (a) shows it cannot be a Euclidean domain. This is the nonprincipal ideal generated by a prime and an indeterminate obstruction.

Evaluation at $i$ gives the ring isomorphismIndeed, division by the monic polynomial $x^2+1$ leaves a unique remainder $a+bx$, and its value $a+bi$ is zero only when both integer coefficients vanish. Thus the quotient maps bijectively, with operations preserved, onto the Gaussian integers. These form a Euclidean domain for the Gaussian integer norm $N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2$, a standard Euclidean example allowed in this part. Geometrically, rounding the real and imaginary coordinates gives a quotient error with squared modulus at most $1/2<1$.

Finally,via $f(x,y)\mapsto f(0,y)\mathrm{mod}2$. Every polynomial over ${\mathbb{F}}_2$ occurs. The kernel consists exactly of polynomials whose $x$-independent part has even coefficients: write $f(x,y)=xg(x,y)+h(y)$ to see that this is precisely $(2,x)$. Hence the induced quotient map is a bijective ring homomorphism. Its target is a Euclidean domain with Euclidean function $\mathrm{deg}$: a polynomial ring over a field is Euclidean by the division algorithm in part (a).