Past exam of the integration course of the University of Oxford / 2023 / 1 / c / ii

True. Suppose instead that $B=A_1\times A_2$ were a Lebesgue measurable set in the plane. The section consequence of Fubini's theorem says that there is a Lebesgue null set $N\subseteq \mathbb{R}$ such thatis a Lebesgue measurable set for every $x\notin N$. This version applies to completed Lebesgue measure; it can be obtained on bounded rectangles and then extended by a countable exhaustion, so no finite-measure assumption on $B$ is needed.

For every $x\in A_1$ the section is exactly $A_2$, which is not measurable. Thus $A_1\subseteq N$. By Completeness of Lebesgue measure, every subset of $N$ is measurable, contradicting the hypothesis on $A_1$. Therefore