Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2009 / iii / Paper 39 / 3

Choose the utility function primitive $U(c)=c^{1-R}/(1-R)$. Any other primitive with the same derivative differs by a constant $C$; this adds $C/\rho$ to the value function and does not alter the policy. Put $p=1-R$ and let ${\pi }_t$ be the stock fraction. The self-financing portfolio equation, including consumption withdrawals, isFor a time-independent infinite-horizon value function $V$, the Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman equation isScaling initial portfolio wealth and all consumption rates by the same positive number preserves admissibility and scales utility function by its $p$th power. This homogeneity gives $V(w)=K{w}^p/p$. In particular,The consumption first-order condition $c^{-R}=V^{\prime }(w)$ and stock first-order condition $w(\mu -r)V^{\prime }(w)+{\sigma }^2\pi w^2{V}^{\prime \prime }(w)=0$ giveThe second derivatives of the optimized expressions are negative, so these are their global maximizers. Writing ${\gamma }_M=K^{-1/R}$ and substituting into the Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman equation givesThereforeThe given inequality is precisely ${\gamma }_M>0$, so the Merton consumption-investment problem value is $V(w)={\gamma }_M^{-R}{w}^{1-R}/(1-R)$. This derives the requested policy; no additional verification argument is needed here.

Define the positive constantSince $S=\delta /k$, the stock price has capital-appreciation dynamics $dS/S=\alpha dt+\sigma dW$. But each share also pays the flow $\delta =kS$. Its dividend-inclusive portfolio return therefore has driftThis is the drift to use in the Merton consumption-investment problem; using only capital appreciation would omit an actual source of portfolio wealth.

At the proposed bank rate,Thus the optimal stock fraction from part (i) isMoreover,Substituting this into the optimal consumption coefficient yieldsHence the finite-value condition in part (i) is automatically satisfied.

The agent's endowment of the single productive share has portfolio wealth $w=S$. Investing fraction one in the stock means holding $w/S=1$ share, leaving $w-S=0$ in the bank account. The optimal consumption rate isThis policy also satisfies the self-financing portfolio equation: with one share and no bank balance,Thus $w_t=S_t$ remains valid at all times. The agent holds the entire one-share supply, has zero net borrowing or lending, and consumes exactly the supplied goods. The stock, bank-account and consumption-good markets all clear.