Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2010 / ia / Paper 1 / 12F (Analysis I)

For $n=1$, differentiability at $x_0$ means existence of the finite two-sided limit of a function ${\lim }_{h\to 0}(f(x_0+h)-f(x_0))/h$. More generally, higher-order differentiability at a point is defined recursively: for $n\ge 2$, the derivatives $f^{\prime },\dots ,f^{(n-1)}$ must exist throughout some open interval containing $x_0$, and $f^{(n-1)}$ must be differentiable at $x_0$. With $f^{(0)}=f$, the final condition isThe neighbourhood requirement makes the numerator meaningful for every sufficiently small nonzero $h$. It does not require $f^{(n)}$ to exist at other points of that neighbourhood, or to be continuous at $x_0$.

Since $f(0)=0$, its difference quotient isThe absolute value of cosine is at most $1$, so this quotient lies between $0$ and $|h|$. The squeeze theorem proves

The zeros of $\cos (\pi /x)$ occur atLet $g(x)=\cos (\pi /x)$. At these nonzero points,The definition of the derivative gives $g(x_k+h)=g^{\prime }(x_k)h+o(|h|)$, henceThe sign function is constant sufficiently near the nonzero point $x_k$, and $(x_k+h{)}^2=x_k^2+O(h)$. As $f(x_k)=0$, multiplication yieldsIts right and left one-sided derivatives are therefore $\pi \mathrm{sign}(x_k)$ and $-\pi \mathrm{sign}(x_k)$ respectively. They differ, so $f$ is not differentiable at any $x_k$. In particular, $x_k\to 0$ as $k\to +\infty$, provingThe absolute value at a simple zero mechanism creates unequal one-sided derivatives. It also shows why the existence of $f^{\prime }(0)$ alone does not imply higher-order differentiability at a point of order two.

Away from zero and the zeros of $\cos (\pi /x)$, the sign function is locally constant and the absolute value function is differentiable at the value of the cosine. The product rule and chain rule giveThus the triangle inequality and the bounds on sine and cosine imply $|f^{\prime }(x)|\le 2|x|+\pi$. Part (c) rules out differentiability at every nonzero cosine zero, and part (b) gives $f^{\prime }(0)=0$, so this estimate covers every point where the derivative exists.

For a finite interval $I$, choose $L<\infty$ such that $|x|\le L$ throughout $I$. ThenThe apparent $x^{-2}$ factor in the derivative of the oscillation cancels against the multiplying $x^2$, which is what makes a uniform bound possible even near zero.