Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2017 / ib / Paper 2 / 3G / b / Solution

No: local uniform convergence need not be global uniform convergence. For a bounded counterexample use the continuous functions $f_n(x)=\min (1,|x|/n)$ and $f(x)=0$. On any fixed interval $[-M,M]$, for $n>M$,Thus there is locally uniform convergence to zero. On all of $\mathbb{R}$, however, ${\sup }_x|f_n(x)-f(x)|=1$ for every $n$, so uniform convergence fails. The cutoff needed to control the tails cannot be chosen independently of the interval.