Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Oxford / 2015 / Prelims / Mathematics II / 4 / b / ii

TakeBoth functions have values in $[1,\infty )$. The reverse triangle inequality gives $|g(x)-g(y)|\le |x-y|$, so $g$ is Lipschitz continuous and hence has uniform continuity.

For $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+1/n$, the distances satisfy $|x_n-y_n|=1/n\to 0$, whereasIn particular tolerance $\epsilon =1$ defeats every proposed $\delta$: choose $n$ with $1/n<\delta$. Thus $f$ does not have uniform continuity on $\mathbb{R}$.