Past exam of the mathematics course of the year 1 of the natural sciences course of the University of Cambridge / 2024 / Paper 1 / 19 / b / iii / Solution

The difference quotient at zero isIf $p>1$, its absolute value is at most $|h{|}^{p-1}\to 0$, so $f$ is differentiable at zero with derivative $0$.

To exclude $p\le 1$, use $h_n=1/(2\pi n)$ and $k_n=1/(2\pi n+\pi /2)$. The difference quotient equals $(2\pi n{)}^{1-p}$ along the first sequence, and $0$ along the second. For $p=1$ the first value is $1$, while for $p<1$ it is unbounded. Hence a common finite limit is impossible. Therefore