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For the plug-in Neyman allocation, the estimated Bernoulli distribution variances are $6/25$ and $3/16$, soThis uses the target ratio directly as the allocation odds; a procedure that actively corrects previous allocation imbalances would need an additional rule.

For the randomized play-the-winner rule RPW$(1,1)$, return the drawn ball and add one ball of the same treatment after a success or of the opposite treatment after a failure. Treatment 0 has three successes and two failures, and treatment 1 has one success and three failures. The urn therefore has $1+3+3=7$ treatment-0 balls and $1+1+2=4$ treatment-1 balls. HenceFor dynamic programming with only the final patient left, there is no future value from learning. Independent uniform prior distributions and Beta-binomial conjugacy give posteriors $p_0\mid \mathcal{D}\sim \mathrm{Beta}(4,3)$ and $p_1\mid \mathcal{D}\sim \mathrm{Beta}(2,4)$. Their posterior predictive probabilities of success are $4/7$ and $2/6=1/3$. The optimal terminal action therefore givesThis is optimal for expected successes with no imposed lower bound on the randomization probabilities.

Let $h(\beta )=\Phi (x_{\mathrm{test}}^T\beta )$. To distinguish the number of posterior draws from the training-sample size, write it as $N$; in the question's sample notation $N=n$. The Monte Carlo estimator of the requested posterior mean isFor independent exact posterior draws it is unbiased, andThe features are conditioned on as fixed data. The estimated probability concerns a future genuine banknote under the posterior predictive probability, not an indicator sampled from that predictive distribution.