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If a discrete-time martingale deflator obeys $Y_t/Y_{t-1}=e^{X_t}$ for an affine process $X$, unit zero-coupon bonds have exponential-affine prices. For one-step coefficients $A,B$, the recursion is $\alpha (0)=\beta (0)=0$, $\alpha (n+1)=A(1+\alpha (n))$, $\beta (n+1)=\beta (n)+B(1+\alpha (n))$.

A martingale deflator rescales asset values so that their deflated gains have a stated martingale property. For a price $S$ with cumulative cash dividends $D$, the correctly deflated gain process iswith a strictly positive adapted deflator $Y$. Dividends are deflated at their payment times; multiplying $Y_t$ by the undiscounted total $S_t+D_t$ is generally different. A local martingale deflator requires the local-martingale property, while true expectation pricing requires the corresponding true-martingale and integrability conditions.

For a positive bank account $B$, put $Z_t=Y_t{B}_t/(Y_0{B}_0)$. If $Z$ is a true mean-one martingale, it defines an equivalent probability measure by its terminal density. Deflated-price local martingales then yield an equivalent local martingale measure. Obtaining an equivalent martingale measure, and ordinary conditional-expectation pricing, additionally requires true martingales for the asset-price ratios. Positivity and a local property alone do not justify that promotion.

Interpret the exponential distribution change time as an exogenous time independent of the stock's Brownian motion, or, equivalently for this calculation, as having constant conditional intensity $\lambda$ while the rate remains high. Its marginal distribution alone would not imply that conditional intensity if the change time carried information about stock returns. Write $r_1=r+\epsilon$, $p=1-R$, $B_1=B(r_1)$, and let $V_1$ be the prechange value function.

Over a short interval $dt$, a rate change occurs with probability $\lambda dt+o(dt)$ and changes continuation value from $V_1(w)$ to $V_0(w)$. The dynamic programming equation is consequentlyThis jump term distinguishes the exponential interest-rate switch from a permanent higher bank rate.

By the homogeneity of CRRA utility, put $V_1(w)=K_1{w}^p/p$, with $K_1>0$. Differentiating the strictly concave expressions in $c$ and $\pi$ givesThe optimized consumption terms contribute $R{K}_1^{1-1/R}{w}^p/p$, and the optimized investment terms contribute $K_1{B}_1{w}^p$. With $K_0={\gamma }_0^{-R}$, the Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman equation reduces toEquivalently,The left side is continuous and strictly increasing for ${\gamma }_1>0$, with limits zero and infinity. Thus $D_1>0$ gives one and only one positive root. This scalar equation is an explicit characterization for arbitrary real $R$; elementary closed forms are not generally available. For example, when $R=2$,Use $({\pi }_1^{\ast },{\gamma }_1)$ until the rate changes, and $({\pi }_0^{\ast },{\gamma }_0)$ afterwards. If the two rates coincide, the root is ${\gamma }_1={\gamma }_0$; as $\lambda$ tends to infinity, it also tends to ${\gamma }_0$.

For a direct attainability check, use the proposed prechange constant fractions. The geometric Brownian motion moment is $E[w_t^p]=w^p\exp [p(B_1-{\gamma }_1)t]$ on the prechange evolution. Conditioning on the independent exponential distribution time therefore givesThe denominator is positive because the scalar equation gives $D_1+p{\gamma }_1={\gamma }_1+\lambda K_0/K_1>0$. Hence the candidate policy actually achieves the stated value.

One can also verify the upper bound for both signs of $p$ without relying on a sign-sensitive terminal-value argument. Let $j_t$ be the current regime, $w^{\ast }$ the candidate portfolio wealth, andIf $N_t=1_{\{\tau \le t\}}$ and ${\tilde{N}}_t=N_t-\lambda (t\wedge \tau )$, the Itô formula and the scalar equation givewhere the jump term stops after the switch and continuous coefficients are understood predictably. Thus $M$ is a positive martingale deflator: for any admissible portfolio wealth $w$, the process $M_t{w}_t+{\int }_0^t{M}_s{c}_{s}ds$ is a nonnegative local martingale. It follows thatFor the candidate policy, $E[M_t{w}_t^{\ast }]\to 0$. Indeed its surviving prechange term decays at rate $D_1+p{\gamma }_1>0$, and its postchange terms decay at rate ${\gamma }_0>0$; integrating over the switch time preserves convergence to zero. The finite-time moment computations also make its budget equality exact. Consequently $E{\int }_0^{\infty }{M}_t{c}_t^{\ast }dt=M_0{w}_0$. Apply the concave supporting-tangent inequalityand integrate in time and expectation. The budget inequality proves that no admissible policy exceeds the candidate. This verifies the value function, including when $R>1$.

Both ${\gamma }_0>0$ and $D_1>0$ are needed for a finite prechange answer. If the postchange value is already infinite, that problem persists after the almost surely finite switch. If ${\gamma }_0>0$ but $D_1\le 0$, then for $p>0$ a small constant prechange consumption fraction makes the expected utility function before the switch diverge, or makes its supremum diverge when $D_1=0$. For $p<0$, the optimal no-consumption terminal moment before the switch is $w^p{e}^{p{B}_{1}t}$; withdrawals only increase this negative-power moment. The expected magnitude of the negative postchange continuation utility function therefore contains the divergent integral $\lambda K_0{w}^p{\int }_0^{\infty }{e}^{-D_{1}t}dt/|p|$. Thus these cases yield respectively $+\infty$ or $-\infty$, rather than a positive-root solution.

Use the conditional second-moment matrix $V_t=\mathbb{E}[P_t{P}_t^{\top }\mid {\mathcal{F}}_{t-1}]$ from the PDF. By part (b), the filtration is finite-state at every finite time. On a time-$(t-1)$ atom let $p_1,\dots ,p_m$ be the successor price vectors and $q_1,\dots ,q_m>0$ their conditional probabilities. Then $m\le n$ andPositive definiteness gives rank $n$, so $m\ge n$. Hence $m=n$, and the $n$ successor vectors have linear independence.

We use the finite-horizon fundamental theorem of asset pricing in deflator form: an arbitrage-free finite market admits a strictly positive adapted process $D$, with $D_0=1$, such that $DP$ is a martingale. Equivalently, on every step,Fix a finite horizon containing the step in question. On the parent atom, write $d_i=D_t/D_{t-1}>0$ on successor $i$ and $p_0=P_{t-1}$. ThenThe proposed values $z_i=p_i^{\top }{V}^{-1}{p}_0$ satisfy precisely the same equation:Because the $p_i$ have linear independence and the $q_i$ are positive, this linear system has a unique solution. Thus $z_i=d_i>0$, provingThis is the positive regression deflator in a complete finite market. It also proves the suggested conclusion: with $Y_0=1$ and $Y_t={\prod }_{u=1}^t{Z}_u$,Hence $Y$ is a strictly positive martingale deflator. Finite-state structure makes these expectations integrable on each finite horizon. Positive definiteness alone would not ensure positivity of the regression factor; market completeness and the positive deflator are essential.

A unit-face-value zero-coupon bond pays $1$ at maturity. The martingale deflator pricing identity isUse the affine process Markov property with respect to the market filtration; if that filtration contains extra predictive information, the natural Markov property alone would not suffice. Part (b), with every future coefficient equal to $1$, gives the exponential-affine form. More explicitly, the exponential-affine bond pricing recursion isIndeed, conditioning the first future step in an $(n+1)$-step horizon transforms $e^{(1+\alpha (n))X_{t+1}+\beta (n)}$ into $e^{A(1+\alpha (n))X_t+B(1+\alpha (n))+\beta (n)}$. ThereforeThis uses the true martingale deflator pricing identity; a merely local martingale deflator would not by itself justify replacing prices by conditional terminal expectations.

The discrete-time fundamental theorem of asset pricing supplies a strictly positive martingale deflator $Y$. Since the maturity-$T$ bond pays one unit at $T$, its deflated price is a martingale:Division by $Y_t>0$ gives the formula.

A predictable strategy $H$ is self-financing when its wealth $X=H\cdot P$ satisfiesIt is admissible when its wealth obeys the stipulated lower bound, here taken to be nonnegative. A strictly positive Itô process $Y$ is a martingale deflator when every deflated asset price $Y{P}^i$ is a local martingale.

A martingale deflator is a strictly positive adapted process $Y$ such that every deflated cum-dividend asset gain has zero conditional drift:Using the definitions of ${\pi }^H$ and ${\xi }^H$,The holdings $H_t$ are ${\mathcal{F}}_{t-1}$-measurable, so the right side is a martingale transform of the deflated asset-gain local martingale. Hence $Z$ is a local martingale.

The fundamental theorem of asset pricing says, in this discrete-time formulation, that the market has no arbitrage if and only if it admits a strictly positive martingale deflator. Under a chosen positive numeraire this is equivalent to the existence of an equivalent martingale measure for numeraire-discounted gains.

Consider an arbitrage-free complete finite-state market with $n$ traded assets, strictly positive physical probabilities on all successor states, and conditional second-moment matrixpositive definite. Completeness permits at most $n$ successors from each parent atom, while positive definiteness forces at least $n$ independent successor price vectors. Thus there are exactly $n$.

The fundamental theorem of asset pricing supplies strictly positive one-step state prices. If their vector is $q$, their physical probabilities are $p_s$, and the independent successor price vectors are the columns of $C$, then $P_{t-1}=Cq$ and $V_t=C\mathrm{diag}(p)C^{\top }$. ConsequentlyThese unique ratios satisfy $\mathbb{E}[Z_t{P}_t\mid {\mathcal{F}}_{t-1}]=P_{t-1}$. Their successive product is a martingale deflator. The no-arbitrage hypothesis is essential: completeness and an invertible second-moment matrix alone do not make the regression expression positive.^[ref]