Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2015 / iii / Paper 35 / 5

$Y_{j,k}$ is the number in group $k$ still observed and event-free immediately before event time $a_j$: its group-specific risk set size. Set $Y_j=Y_{j,0}+Y_{j,1}$. Under the common hazard function and conditional on exactly one event at that time, each at-risk individual has the same infinitesimal event probability. ThereforeThe indicator $g_{\pi (j)}$ records whether the event came from group 1, while $p(j,1)$ is its conditional expectation under equal hazards. Thus $z_j$ is the observed-minus-expected group-1 event count at that time. Under the null these are martingale differences, with conditional varianceThe log-rank statistic $z={\sum }_j{z}_j$ has null mean zero. Its predictable variance estimate is $V={\sum }_j{p}_j(1-p_j)$, so the equal-hazards test usesUse a two-sided large-sample log-rank test if no direction was prespecified; $V>0$ and adequate information are needed. The variance is the no-ties form. A positive $z$ indicates more group-1 events than expected. Independent censoring conditional on the model is required for these at-risk event intensities to describe the data.

Under the proportional hazards model, the total instantaneous group-$k$ rate is $Y_{j,k}{e}^{\beta k}{h}_0(a_j)$. Conditioning on the next event cancels the baseline hazard, givingKeep $z_j$ defined using its null probability $p(j,1)$, as in the question. Its conditional expectation under the alternative isIt is zero at $\beta =0$, as required, and has the sign of $\beta$ when both groups remain at risk. Replacing $p(j,1)$ inside the definition of $z_j$ with the alternative probability would give a different residual, whose mean would instead be zero under that alternative.