Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2018 / iii / Paper 201 / 1 / d

Let ${\xi }_1,{\xi }_2,\dots$ be independent and identically distributed random variables with the fair Bernoulli distribution, and putRelative to ${\mathcal{F}}_n=\sigma ({\xi }_1,\dots ,{\xi }_n)$, this fair-coin doubling martingale satisfies $\mathbb{E}[M_{n+1}\mid {\mathcal{F}}_n]=M_n$: while alive it doubles with probability $1/2$ and becomes zero otherwise. Its expected value is $\mathbb{E}{M}_n=2^n{2}^{-n}=1$.

The probability of an infinite run of ones is ${\lim }_n{2}^{-n}=0$, so $M_n$ is eventually zero almost surely. However,Thus the martingale lacks convergence in L1 to its limit from almost sure convergence. Nor can it have convergence in L1 to any other limit: convergence in L1 implies convergence in probability, whose limit is unique up to almost sure equality.