Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2023 / ib / Paper 2 / 1E (Groups, Rings and Modules)

Let $e^2=e$ with $e\ne 0,1$. Then $e(1-e)=0$, and the ideals $eR$ and $(1-e)R$ are nonzero rings with identities $e$ and $1-e$. DefineThis is a ring homomorphism. Its inverse is $(x,y)\mapsto x+y$, because $ex=x$, $(1-e)y=y$, and the cross terms vanish. Hence $R\cong eR\times (1-e)R$, proving (ii).

Conversely, if $R\cong R_1\times R_2$ with both factors nontrivial, the inverse image of $(1_{R_1},0)$ is an idempotent. It is neither zero nor one, so (i) holds. This completes the ring product decomposition by an idempotent equivalence.

Forthe parity condition is preserved by componentwise addition, negation, and multiplication, and $(1,1)$ is the identity. Thus $R$ is a ring.

It is not an integral domain, since $(2,0)$ and $(0,2)$ are nonzero elements of $R$ whose product is zero. It is also not a product of two nontrivial rings. Indeed, an idempotent in ${\mathbb{Z}}^2$ has each coordinate in $\{0,1\}$, and the parity condition leaves only $(0,0)$ and $(1,1)$. The proved equivalence then excludes a nontrivial product decomposition.