 Solution

On $(0,1)$, the product rule and chain rule give $f^{\prime }(x)=2x\sin (1/x)-\cos (1/x)$. On $(-1,0)$, the function is constant and has derivative zero. At zero,Its absolute value is at most $|h|$, so the squeeze theorem gives $f^{\prime }(0)=0$. ThereforeFor $x_n=1/(2\pi n)$, we have $x_n\to 0$ but $f^{\prime }(x_n)=-1$ for every $n$. This differs from $f^{\prime }(0)=0$, so $f^{\prime }$ is not continuous at zero. Indeed, $y_n=1/((2n+1)\pi )$ gives $f^{\prime }(y_n)=1$, so the right-hand limit of a function does not exist. Thus $f$ is differentiable everywhere on $(-1,1)$, while $f^{\prime }$ is discontinuous at zero.