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Independence requires each joint probability to equal the product of the relevant marginals. In particular it implies $d=(c+d)(b+d)$, equivalent to $ad=bc$.

Conversely let $p=c+d$ and $q=b+d$, and assume $ad=bc$. The covariance calculation gives $d=pq$. ThenAll four joint probabilities therefore factor, proving independence. HenceThis is Bernoulli independence from zero covariance, including degenerate marginals. It is special to two-point variables and is not a general equivalence for arbitrary random variables.

Two square-integrable random variables $X,Y$ are uncorrelated random variables when $\mathrm{Cov}(X,Y)=0$. Independent random variables with finite second moments are uncorrelated random variables, but zero covariance does not generally imply independence.

For an explicit counterexample, let $X$ take $-1$, $0$, $1$ with equal probabilities, and let $Y=X^2$. Then $\mathbb{E}X=\mathbb{E}{X}^3=0$, so $\mathrm{Cov}(X,Y)=\mathbb{E}{X}^3-\mathbb{E}X\mathbb{E}{X}^2=0$. Nevertheless, $Y$ is completely determined by $X$: $\mathbb{P}(Y=0\mid X=0)=1$, while $\mathbb{P}(Y=0)=1/3$. Thus these are uncorrelated random variables with statistical dependence. In this example, opposite contributions from the odd function $x^3$ cancel; the even function $x^2$ still retains information about $|X|$. The last panel of the covariance diagram shows the relationship.

There are useful special cases. Uncorrelated jointly normal variables are independent, and the Bernoulli independence from zero covariance result supplies another setting where the converse holds. Their distribution assumptions do the extra work; zero covariance alone does not.