Past exam of the martingales and financial mathematics course of the University of Oxford / 2009 / A / 1 / b / iii / Solution

Suppose first that complete convergence holds. For each positive integer $j$, apply the First Borel-Cantelli lemma to $\{|X_n-X|>1/j\}$. Outside a countable union of null events, only finitely many of these exceedances occur for every $j$. This is almost sure convergence, with no independence assumption.

For the converse, an important point is that independence of $X_n$ does not immediately imply independence of $X_n-X$. Instead use the fact that an almost-sure limit of independent random variables is constant. Indeed, $Z={\mathrm{limsup}}_n{X}_n$ is measurable for the tail sigma-algebra. The Kolmogorov zero-one law makes each event $\{Z\le q\}$, $q\in \mathbb{Q}$, have probability zero or one. Since $Z=X$ almost surely and $X$ is finite, these probabilities form the distribution function of a point mass: there is a finite constant $c$ with $X=c$ almost surely.

Now $\{|X_n-c|>ϵ\}$ are independent events. Almost sure convergence says that their infinitely-often event has probability zero. The contrapositive of the Second Borel-Cantelli lemma givesReplacing $c$ by the almost surely equal $X$ leaves each probability unchanged. Thus complete convergence and almost sure convergence are equivalent for independent sequences.