Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2009 / ib / Paper 2 / 3E (Analysis II)

The contraction mapping theorem states that a contraction mapping $T:X\to X$ on a nonempty complete metric space has a unique fixed point. Here contraction means that some $0\le q<1$ satisfies $d(Tx,Ty)\le qd(x,y)$ for all $x,y$.

For a proof, choose $x_0$ and iterate $x_{r+1}=T{x}_r$. Induction gives $d(x_{r+1},x_r)\le q^{r}d(x_1,x_0)$. For $m>n$, the triangle inequality and a geometric series giveThus the iterates form a Cauchy sequence, and completeness supplies a limit $a\in X$. A contraction mapping is continuous, so $Ta=\lim T{x}_n=\lim x_{n+1}=a$. If $b$ is another fixed point, $d(a,b)=d(Ta,Tb)\le qd(a,b)$, forcing $d(a,b)=0$. This proves existence and uniqueness.

For the exponential problem, use $h=f\circ f$ on the complete metric space $\mathbb{R}$. Its derivative isPutting $t=e^{-x}>0$, the function $t{e}^{-t}$ has maximum $1/e$ at $t=1$, as its derivative is $(1-t)e^{-t}$. By the mean value theorem, $|h(x)-h(y)|\le e^{-1}|x-y|$, so $h$ is a contraction mapping on all of $\mathbb{R}$. Let $a$ be its unique fixed point. The compositions commute, so $h(f(a))=f(h(a))=f(a)$; uniqueness of the fixed point of $h$ forces $f(a)=a$. Conversely every fixed point of $f$ is fixed by $h$. Hence there is exactly one real solution of $x=e^{-x}$. It lies in $(0,1)$ because $a=e^{-a}>0$ and then $e^{-a}<1$. This uses the iterated contraction argument without claiming that $f$ itself contracts on all of $\mathbb{R}$.