Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2020 / ib / Paper 1 / 10E / Solution

A function $f:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^r$ is differentiable at $x$ if there is a linear map $L:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^r$ such thatThe map $L$, which is unique, is the derivative $f^{\prime }(x)$.

Expanding in a matrix increment $H$ givesTherefore $p$ is differentiable everywhere and

The inverse function theorem states that if $f$ is continuously differentiable near $a$ and $f^{\prime }(a)$ is invertible, then $f$ restricts to a bijection between neighbourhoods of $a$ and $f(a)$; its local inverse is continuously differentiable, with derivativeIn the normalized case $f(0)=0$ and $f^{\prime }(0)=I$, continuity of $f^{\prime }$ gives a closed ball ${\overline{B}}_r(0)$ on whichFor small $y$, define $T_y(x)=x-f(x)+y$. The mean value inequality makes $T_y$ a contraction mapping with constant $q$. If $\Vert y\Vert \le (1-q)r$, thenso $T_y$ maps the ball into itself. The contraction mapping theorem gives a unique fixed point $x_y$, and the fixed-point equation is precisely $f(x_y)=y$. Moreover,so $\Vert x_y-x_z\Vert \le \Vert y-z\Vert /(1-q)$. Thus $y\mapsto x_y$ is a continuous local inverse.

For the polynomial map in the question,The derivative is invertible, so the inverse function theorem supplies some $ϵ>0$ and a continuously differentiable $q:D_{ϵ}(I)\to {\mathcal{M}}_n$ such thatThere can be no inverse on all of ${\mathcal{M}}_n$, becauseso $p$ is not injective.