Past exam of the options I for mathematics and philosophy course of the University of Oxford / 2013 / E / 1 / b / iii

Yes: at least one factor topology must be indiscrete. Suppose instead that both have a nonempty proper open set, say $\varnothing \ne U⊊X$ and $\varnothing \ne V⊊Y$. Thenis open in the product topology. Both coordinate projections of $W$ are the full factors, because $U,V$ are nonempty. If $W$ were a rectangle $A\times B$, this would force $A=X$, $B=Y$, hence $W=X\times Y$. But choosing $x\notin U$ and $y\notin V$ gives $(x,y)\notin W$, a contradiction. Thus both factors cannot have nontrivial open sets. This is rectangularity of every product-open set.