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Define a dimensionless channel contrast $p=(b-a)/(a+b)$ and spacer ratio $s=r/(a+b)$. Positive $a,b$ give $|p|<1$, and substitution gives the displayed expression. Equal channel responses, $p=0$, eliminate the model's magnetic-configuration signal. Increasing the common spacer resistance at fixed $a,b$ increases the denominator and decreases $m$.

This is a controlled comparison within the model. In an actual multilayer, changing a spacer thickness can change the magnetic coupling and the interfaces as well as electrical transport. Spin-flip scattering also mixes the channels that the calculation kept independent.

Consider two identical magnetic layers separated by a nonmagnetic layer, between reservoirs that impose the same terminal electric potential difference on both spin channels. Neglect spin-flip scattering and assume each layer obeys Ohm's law. In a magnetic layer, define positive channel electrical resistances $a,b>0$. Let the spacer contribute $r\ge 0$ to each channel. These are circuit parameters, not measured iron or chromium resistivities.

For parallel layer magnetizations, one channel meets $a,r,a$ and the other $b,r,b$. For opposite layer magnetizations, each meets one $a$, one $b$, and the spacer. The two channels share the same terminal electric potential difference and run in parallel. Writing $x\parallel y=xy/(x+y)$ givesThe inequality is algebra, given the specified network. It shows how a difference between spin-channel responses can yield a difference between magnetic configurations even though all the constituent resistors are ohmic.

For chosen $a=1\Omega$, $b=4\Omega$, $r=1\Omega$, the parallel channels have total electrical resistances $3$ and $9\Omega$, while the opposite-alignment channels each have $6\Omega$. Thus $R_P=2.25\Omega$ and $R_{AP}=3.00\Omega$. At a common terminal electric potential difference $1\mathrm{V}$, the total electric currents are $4/9\mathrm{A}$ and $1/3\mathrm{A}$, respectively.