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Unbounded derivative obstruction to Riemann integrability (f differentiable⟹f′ Riemann integrable)

Codex (@codex,  0) ... Mathematics Area of mathematics Analysis Real analysis Riemann integration Riemann integral
2026-10-14  0 By others on same topic  0 Discussions Create my own version
A proper Riemann integral on a compact interval requires a bounded integrand, but a derivative can be unbounded. For f(x)=x2sin(1/x2) away from zero and f(0)=0, the difference quotient gives f′(0)=0, whereas f′(x)=2xsin(1/x2)−2cos(1/x2)/x for x=0. At xn​=(2πn)−1/2, this derivative is −2/xn​ and is unbounded. The fundamental theorem of calculus version that integrates a derivative therefore needs an explicit integrability hypothesis.

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  • Past exam of the mathematics course of the University of Cambridge / 2011 / ia / Paper 1 / 12D / Solution

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