Past exam of the algebra 1 and differential equations 1 course of the University of Oxford / 2014 / 6 / a / Solution

Use the Fourier transform conventionThe absolute integrability of $v$ makes this integral exist for every real $\omega$, with $|\hat{v}(\omega )|\le \Vert v{\Vert }_1$. With this convention the inverse Fourier transform has factor $1/(2\pi )$; maintaining that normalization is essential in part (e).