Past exam of the options I for mathematics and philosophy course of the University of Oxford / 2013 / F (Multivariable Calculus)

The total derivative of $f$ at $x$ is a linear map $Df(x):{\mathbb{R}}^n\to \mathbb{R}$ satisfyingThe gradient is the vector of partial derivatives, $\nabla f(x)=({\partial }_{1}f(x),\dots ,{\partial }_{n}f(x))$. When $f$ is totally differentiable, these partial derivatives exist andThus the derivative is a linear functional represented by the gradient under the Euclidean inner product. Existence of partial derivatives alone does not imply total differentiability.

The denominator is positive on $B$ because $x_3>-1$. The quotient rule gives the gradientIn particular $g$ is continuously differentiable throughout $B$.

The scalar-valued multivariable mean value theorem states that, if $f$ is differentiable on an open set containing the closed line segment from $x$ to $y$, then for $x\ne y$ there exists $s\in (0,1)$ such thatThis follows by applying the one-dimensional mean value theorem to $t\mapsto f(x+t(y-x))$ on $[0,1]$. The segment condition is necessary for this formulation on a possibly nonconvex domain.

For every $z\in B$, $z_3+3>2$ and $|z_1+z_2|<2$. Consequently each of the three partial derivatives in the preceding gradient has absolute value below $1/2$, soThe segment joining $x,y\in B$ lies inside $B$. The mean value theorem and Cauchy-Schwarz inequality therefore giveFor $x=y$ both sides vanish. This proves the required Lipschitz continuity uniformly on the ball.

A $C^1$ diffeomorphism $F:U\to V$ is a bijection for which both $F$ and $F^{-1}$ are continuously differentiable. If a higher regularity class is specified, both maps must belong to that class. In particular, a diffeomorphism is a homeomorphism, and the chain rule gives $D(F^{-1})(F(x))=(DF(x){)}^{-1}$.

The inverse function theorem states: let $F:U\subseteq {\mathbb{R}}^n\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ be $C^1$, with $U$ open, and suppose $DF(x_0)$ is invertible. Then there exist open neighbourhoods $U_0\subseteq U$ of $x_0$ and $V_0$ of $F(x_0)$ such that $F:U_0\to V_0$ is a $C^1$ diffeomorphism. Its inverse derivative satisfiesThe conclusion is local; invertibility of one Jacobian matrix does not assert global injectivity.

The map $G$ is $C^1$ on the open ball $B$. Its Jacobian matrix isAt the origin $G(0)=0$ and $\boxed{\det DG(0)=1/3\ne 0}$. The inverse function theorem therefore supplies the required open sets $V_1\subset B$ and $V_2\subset {\mathbb{R}}^3$, both containing zero, with $G:V_1\to V_2$ a diffeomorphism. The explicit inverse formula on its image,also checks the local conclusion directly.