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Suppose $X_1,\dots ,X_n$, $n\ge 1$, are independent and identically distributed with Laplace distribution $\mathrm{Laplace}(\mu ,b)$, where $b>0$. For realized values $x_1,\dots ,x_n$, the likelihood function and log-likelihood function areFor fixed $b$, maximum likelihood estimation of the location therefore minimizes the sum of absolute losses. This connects the Laplace distribution to robust statistics: each observation contributes a cost growing linearly with its distance, whereas squared-error loss grows quadratically.

Why does a sample median minimize $S$? Between successive order statistics, moving $a$ a little to the right increases each distance to a value on the left and decreases each distance to a value on the right. Hence the slope is the number on the left minus the number on the right. It changes from negative to positive at the middle. More precisely, if $x_{(1)}\le \cdots \le x_{(n)}$, all minimizing locations areFor an even sample size, the objective is flat throughout the interval between the two central order statistics. The midpoint convention for the sample median selects one solution; it does not prove uniqueness. ^[ref] This is the finite-sample counterpart of median minimizes expected absolute loss.

If $S(\hat{\mu })>0$, maximizing over $b>0$ givesThe derivative is positive below this value and negative above it. Moreover the maximized likelihood function is proportional to $S(\mu {)}^{-n}$ wherever $S(\mu )>0$, so the same minimizing locations give the joint maximum-likelihood estimates. ^[ref] The scale estimate divides by $n$; this formula is not an assertion that it is an unbiased estimator.

The boundary case matters: if all observations equal $c$, choose $\mu =c$. Then $S(c)=0$ and $L(c,b)=(2b{)}^{-n}\to \infty$ as $b\downarrow 0$. There is no finite joint maximum-likelihood estimate in the parameter space $b>0$. In particular, this always occurs for $n=1$. Writing $\hat{b}=0$ does not produce an admissible Laplace distribution.