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A function $f:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^r$ is differentiable at $x$ if there is a linear map $L:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^r$ such thatThe map $L$, which is unique, is the derivative $f^{\prime }(x)$.

Expanding in a matrix increment $H$ givesTherefore $p$ is differentiable everywhere and

The inverse function theorem states that if $f$ is continuously differentiable near $a$ and $f^{\prime }(a)$ is invertible, then $f$ restricts to a bijection between neighbourhoods of $a$ and $f(a)$; its local inverse is continuously differentiable, with derivativeIn the normalized case $f(0)=0$ and $f^{\prime }(0)=I$, continuity of $f^{\prime }$ gives a closed ball ${\overline{B}}_r(0)$ on whichFor small $y$, define $T_y(x)=x-f(x)+y$. The mean value inequality makes $T_y$ a contraction mapping with constant $q$. If $\Vert y\Vert \le (1-q)r$, thenso $T_y$ maps the ball into itself. The contraction mapping theorem gives a unique fixed point $x_y$, and the fixed-point equation is precisely $f(x_y)=y$. Moreover,so $\Vert x_y-x_z\Vert \le \Vert y-z\Vert /(1-q)$. Thus $y\mapsto x_y$ is a continuous local inverse.

For the polynomial map in the question,The derivative is invertible, so the inverse function theorem supplies some $ϵ>0$ and a continuously differentiable $q:D_{ϵ}(I)\to {\mathcal{M}}_n$ such thatThere can be no inverse on all of ${\mathcal{M}}_n$, becauseso $p$ is not injective.

A map $T:X\to Y$ between metric spaces is a contraction mapping if some $q<1$ satisfies $d(Tx,Ty)\le qd(x,y)$ for all $x,y$.

The Banach fixed-point theorem states that a contraction from a nonempty complete metric space to itself has a unique fixed point. Indeed, for $x_{n+1}=T{x}_n$,so the geometric-series estimate makes $(x_n)$ Cauchy. Completeness gives a limit $x_{\ast }$, continuity gives $T{x}_{\ast }=x_{\ast }$, andproves uniqueness.

Every solution of $x=\cos x$ lies in $[-1,1]$. The cosine maps this complete interval into itself and, by the mean value theorem, has Lipschitz constant at most $\sin 1<1$ there. It therefore has exactly one real fixed point.

The mean value inequality says that on a convex domain, a uniform derivative bound $\Vert Df\Vert \le M$ implies $\Vert f(x)-f(y)\Vert \le M\Vert x-y\Vert$. Equip ${\mathbb{R}}^2$ with the maximum norm and takeFor $(x,y)\in D$, elementary cosine bounds giveso $f(D)\subseteq D$. The maximum absolute row sum ofis at most $2\sin (1/2)<1$. The mean value inequality makes $f$ a contraction on the complete set $D$, so it has a fixed point.

For $a\in U$, the function $f:U\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ is differentiable at $a$ if there is a linear map $A:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ such thatThe linear map is unique and is the Frechet derivative $D{f}_a=A$. The function is continuously differentiable at $a$ if it is differentiable on a neighbourhood of $a$ and the map $x\mapsto D{f}_x$, with values in the space of linear maps equipped with the operator norm, is continuous at $a$.

If $T:{\mathbb{R}}^m\to {\mathbb{R}}^n$ is linear, thenConsequently $D{T}_a=T$ at every $a$. The derivative is a constant function of $a$, hence is continuous, so every linear map is continuously differentiable everywhere.

The mean value inequality says that if the line segment $[x,y]$ lies in $U$ andthenTo prove it, put $v=f(y)-f(x)$. The claim is immediate if $v=0$. Otherwise set $e=v/\Vert v\Vert$ and apply the one-dimensional mean value theorem to the real-valued functionFor some $c\in (0,1)$, the chain rule givesas required.

Now suppose that $U$ is open and connected and that $D{f}_a=0$ for every $a\in U$. Every point has an open ball contained in $U$. The mean value inequality with $M=0$ shows that $f$ is constant on each such ball, so $f$ is locally constant. Fix $a_0\in U$. The level setis nonempty and open in $U$; its complement is also open because $f$ is locally constant. Since $U$ is connected, $E=U$. This proves the zero derivative on a connected open set result: $f$ is constant.

The inverse function theorem states that if $f:U\to {\mathbb{R}}^m$ is continuously differentiable, $a\in U$, and $D{f}_a$ is an invertible linear map, then there are open neighbourhoods $V$ of $a$ and $W$ of $f(a)$ such that $f{|}_V:V\to W$ is a bijection whose inverse is continuously differentiable.

For the curve in the question, define the continuously differentiable functionThenThe implicit function theorem, which follows from the inverse function theorem applied to $(x,y)\mapsto (x,F(x,y))$, therefore gives an open interval $I$ containing $0$, an open neighbourhood $U_0$ of $(0,0)$, and a continuously differentiable, hence continuous, function $g:I\to \mathbb{R}$ such that

A differentiable map on a connected open subset of Euclidean space whose derivative vanishes everywhere is constant. The mean value inequality makes it constant on every ball in the domain, hence locally constant; connectedness then makes the value global.